Purchase Requisition tied to a Work Order and MRP Interaction

Hello, 

We are trying to figure out if the following scenario is “as intended” IFS behavior:

Question:  What’s the “correct” way to source INVENTORY parts for my WO when Inv Part in Stock =0?

Scenario:  Test with 0 in stock (MMR = Maintenance Material Req.): 

1. Enter Inv P/N xx on WO/Req..s Tab/Part Req. Lines Tab  --  Save (sys auto-adds an MMR line),  --  leave Pur.Req. in Planned
2. Release MMR header
3. Run MRP.

MRP creates Pur.Req. for MMR line seemingly ignoring the WO tied (planned) Pur.Req. supply.

This creates an over-supply for xx.  Is this as intended behavior?

Thanks.

Here's the over-supplied P/N xx :