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General Overhead Recovery

  • January 14, 2022
  • 2 replies
  • 105 views

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  • Do Gooder (Customer)
  • 4 replies

Hi everyone

Our system appears to have stopped posting machine overhead to the accounts when a shop order is completed.  I’m looking at the work centre that is used and the value is only on cost set 2 and not in cost set 1 (inventory value) - will this be the issue? 

Thanks, Derek  

 

 

Best answer by Thomas Peterson

Hi, 

Yes, that would be an issue if you want postings to occur.  The cost 1 will create postings. The cost set 2 could drive a standard cost, but the postings are from the cost set 1.  

 

Yes, you would need a value for the overhead 1 in cost set 1- if you want  the postings. Else, you  would probably get MFG variances. 

 

Best regards, 

 

Thomas

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2 replies

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  • Superhero (Employee)
  • 1111 replies
  • Answer
  • January 14, 2022

Hi, 

Yes, that would be an issue if you want postings to occur.  The cost 1 will create postings. The cost set 2 could drive a standard cost, but the postings are from the cost set 1.  

 

Yes, you would need a value for the overhead 1 in cost set 1- if you want  the postings. Else, you  would probably get MFG variances. 

 

Best regards, 

 

Thomas


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  • Author
  • Do Gooder (Customer)
  • 4 replies
  • January 17, 2022

Hi @Thomas Peterson

That’s what I thought, but also wanted another opinion.  Thank you.