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Hello,

 

I have setup Personal Data Management to anonymize the customer email address. The solution seems to work well.

 

What I don’t understand is the following:

  • is this just hiding the data on client side or did it really updated the value in the DB to m*********** for the email address?

We are also using the email address setup in communication method to also send the invoices automatically to the customer by email every time an invoice is printed/posted. Does that mean that after anonymizing the email address it will try to send invoices per email to m*********** and the email will fail?

Tagging @dsj Damith as I read some older where you have worked with Personal Data Management functionality.

Hi Marcel,

You have actually updated the value in the DB, not just hidden the data. The only difference between removing and anonymizing data, is that anonymizing replaces the original data with the data setup in basic data (X************, in your case). Thus, you cannot send email any longer.

There is no option to just “hide” data via “Personal Data Management”. That can instead be achieved with access. Personal Data Management actually removes data in DB.

Regards,
Magnus


Hi @Marcel.Ausan,

 

I agree with @Magnus Johansson

Anonymizing  updates the database tables so it’s not possible to reverse.

If you use send invoice function (or any email functionality using event actions), then the email will still trigger and fail. But I hope this could be easily prevented using a condition to check the email is not in the anonymized  format.

 

Hope it helps!

Damith

 


@dsj @Magnus Johansson  thanks for the quick confirmation.


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