When the Dispose of an object is done using sale of an object which is an income to the Company , we had already raised a Customer order and Customer invoice for this
Is it possible to invoice the sales of an object using Customer invoice without instant invoice process?
What is the process here ?
Should i first proceed with Customer invoice and once it is transferred, then create manual voucher and post it to asset?
Thanks,
KMH
Best answer by Adam Bereda
View originalHello,
You need to perform operation in Fixed assets to remove asset from your books and calculate cost of goods sold for this operation.
Customer invoice is needed to book revenue. You can print it from the system using customer order (with non-inventory sales part, I guess) or instant invoice.
Fixed assets sale operation triggers two entries with sale value - debit FAP10 and credit FAP9.
If you have customer order revenue account set by posting M28 / M30 for this part set to same account as FAP10 - no further vouchers are needed…
Thanks Adam , This really helped and internally Tested it.
Hello Adam,
Customer Has not set up M30/M28 with the account that as the same that FAP10 post to , in such case shall I raise Manual Voucher to credit M30 account and debit FAP10 account with the invoice amounts. Thanks.
Kanchana
Hello, Kanchana,
It might depend on the chart of account, but I suspect manual voucher would be needed.
One of possible setup solution is to ignore FAP9/FAP10 postings from reporting perspective - directing them to statistical account. In such a case, manual voucher might not be necessary.
In general: either M28/M30 books actual revenue, and FAP25 - cost of goods sold (in such a case FAP9/FAP10 postings does not mean anything and should be directed to statistical accounts not presented in PnL statement) or revenue is reported from FAP9 (actual revenue account), M10 is account for unbilled revenue and M28/M30 should close this unbilled revenue account (it comes from actual invoicing).
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