I take it that you have a purchase price on it on order 2100216?
What happens if you perform a cost run?
Steve
Hi Steve,
Do you mean update inventory value Cost Set 1?
Thanks
Yes, I would expect that that is the correct behavior. The value is in finance on the Fixed Asset and not in inventory. It should not change whether the rental object is in inventory or at rental.
RENT-IN(Rental purchase order flows)
Cost is zero and accountings are not created for ARRIVAL transactions for rental arrivals .These transactions are created with Ownership: Supplier Rented or Company Rental Asset
Instead Rental transactions represent the accrued cost (Rent In, ‘Project Charging, Work Order Charging) of a rental purchase order line.
Once rental events have been entered for a rental line, rental transactions can be generated for the line.
RENT-OUT(rental Customer order flows)
In a same way,
COGS are zero for all rental sales parts and Accountings are not created for OESHIP transaction for those (Ownership='Company Rental Asset' or Supplier Rented)
The customer invoice for rentals is based on rental transactions and not the deliveries.